Why Did the Prophet Have So Many Wives?

In a discussion on an email list, a Hindu raised several objections to Islam, among which was the following objection about Prophet Muhammud (may peace be upon him): 

... Yes all the ancient culture have people practicing Polygamy. Yes, if Mohammed wouldn't have been a prophet, we wouldn't have asked him this question on why Mohammed too so many wifes. Furthermore, taking a daughter-in-law as a wife is not a thing one would expect from a prophet. What about the concubines he maintained in his Harem ?. Is this also an act of prophethood. Yes, he was a prophet to Arabic people but he can't be asked by his followers to be the prophet for the entire man kind.

Since the primary participants of the discussion were not responding to this objection, I presented the following two links: 

Why Did the Prophet Have So Many Wives? 

http://www.onislam.net/english/ask-about-islam/ethics-and-values/muslim-character/166258-why-did-the-prophet-have-so-many-wives.html 

The Age of Hazrat Aisha at Marriage 
http://www.khalidzaheer.com/qa/1050 

Al-Qur'an 4:34 - a circular debate

AZ copied me in an email discussion he was having with someone. Part of the message quoted verse 4:34, and so I commented which led to the following exchange: 

Excerpt of AZ's email I was copied in: ...What do you find wrong in Surah 4 : Ayat 34 -"Men are the protectors of maintainers of women, because Allah has made one of them to excel the other and because they spend to support them from their means" ------ and all that follows after that ... 

My comment: My interpretation of the verse 4:34 

http://islam-qna.blogspot.com/2008/11/to-be-or-not-to-be-equal-comments-on.html 

http://islam-qna.blogspot.com/2008/11/to-spankbeat-wives-is-not-crime.html 

AZ: What you say is correct and what I said is also correct. No where have I used the word 'inferior'. Please understand that Allah has assigned different duties for both which you have rightly mentioned too. In the eyes of Allah both are equal in deeds. A good act will receive the same reward for both; and an evil act will be punished accordingly for both. Since you go into details of a woman's position, being a women, can you answer one question- why did Allah not appoint woman as a Prophet. Why are all the Prophets  men and not a single woman? Why are two witnesses  required  from women as against only one from men in matters that requires witnesses ? 

My response: Thank you for agreeing with my interpretation. Yes, you did not use the word inferior - I had posted these on my blog in 2008 in response to someone else's post in a different list. Since it was relevant to your email, therefore I shared the links with you. 

Yes, I agree, all men and women are equal in terms of deeds and consequent rewards in the Hereafter, as clearly indicated in several verses: http://quran.com/4/124 , http://quran.com/16/97 , http://quran.com/33/35 , http://quran.com/40/40 , http://quran.com/47/19 , http://quran.com/48/5 , http://quran.com/57/12 , http://quran.com/57/18 and http://quran.com/85/10 

As regards the questions you have posed: 

a) why did Allah not appoint woman as a Prophet. Why are all the Prophets  men and not a single woman?  

Answer) I think, Allah knows best, that as the most precious job of the continuity of human kind (child bearing) has been assigned to women, thus women have not been overloaded with any other responsibility. Also, in the Quran chapter 66, where Allah is specifically giving example of believers and disbelievers, Allah chooses to present the example of women in both cases; the two exemplary believers worthy of mention for their belief as examples for all believers are the wife of Pharaoh and Mary, daughter of Imran: http://quran.com/66/11-12 

This may also be of interest: http://signsandscience.blogspot.com/2015/06/mission-of-messengers.html 

b) Why are two witnesses  required  from women as against only one from men in matters that requires witnesses?

Answer) Number of witnesses have been prescribed for specific cases clearly described in the relevant verses: 

Two male witnesses or one male and two female witnesses are required only in cases where debts are contracted: http://quran.com/2/282 

In cases of zina, four witnesses are required for the case to be admissible to court: http://quran.com/24/4 If the person lodging the accusation is unable to produce four witnesses, the accuser is to be punished, and their testimony not accepted ever after. 

In cases where one spouse accuses the other spouse, the rules and requirements are equal: http://quran.com/24/6-10 

Further, as punishment for crimes are equal, be it murder [http://quran.com/2/178], theft [http://quran.com/5/38] or adultery [http://quran.com/24/2], therefore, I suppose, in cases other than those two specifically mentioned, male and female witnesses should be considered equal as per the nature of the crime and the witness' presence at the scene. 

And Allah knows best. 

AZ: I am glad that you say Allah knows best.

Two more questions before I give you Allah's decision.

1. Why is a woman not allowed to marry another man while husband is alive and living with her, whereas a man is allowed to marry a second wife while his first wife is alive and staying with

him - that too without any need to take any sort of permission from the first wife ?

2. Why when a man dies his wealth and properties are not equally divided between his children - son gets more than the daughter.

Why? Why?  

My response: 

1. Why is a woman not allowed to marry another man while husband is alive and living with her, whereas a man is allowed to marry a second wife while his first wife is alive and staying with him - that too without any need to take any sort of permission from the first wife ?

Answer) Lineage. 

Also, note that according to the verses 4:2,3,127 of Surah Nisa, conditional polygamy is permitted to provide for the care of orphans, and 4:3 emphasises that only one is better. For explanation, please see: http://islam-qna.blogspot.com/2008/11/conditional-polygamy-permitted-in-islam.html 

I do not know whether permission is or not required. 

2. Why when a man dies his wealth and properties are not equally divided between his children - son gets more than the daughter. Why? Why? 

Answer) A woman is not required to spend from her personal wealth on anyone, including her own self. Since male members of the family are required to spend on the entire family's maintenance, therefore their need for it is greater. Therefore, since women do not have to spend, whatever they inherit is still greater than the male members share, even though it appears to be less. 

And Allah knows best! 

AZ: Yes, of course Allah knows the best. Allah knows the best in every matter - including relations  between men and women= "Men are the protectors and   maintainers of women, because Allah has made one of them to excel the other, and because they spend to support them from their means-------------------------------"

You Mashallah can read the Quran so I don't have to quote the whole Verse Ayat 34 of Surah 4.

Polygamy

Question: There is one thing I find curious though moslems are allowed more then one wife. A Saudi can have four provided he can care for them. Just thinking to myself though isn't one plenty. Perhaps the discussion to turn to the possibility of an undercurrent of masochism in Islam.
Answer: As I understand from the Quran, conditional polygamy is allowed:
In Surah Nisaa, ayaat 2 & 3 read as follows(Abdullah Yusuf Ali translation)
"To orphans restore their property (When they reach their age), nor substitute (your) worthless things for (their) good ones; and devour not their substance (by mixing it up) with your own. For this is indeed a great sin.
If ye fear that ye shall not be able to deal justly with the orphans, Marry women of your choice, Two or three or four; but if ye fear that ye shall not be able to deal justly (with them), then only one, or (a captive) that your right hands possess, that will be more suitable, to prevent you from doing injustice. "
The point to be noted here is that the permission for marriage is for the purpose of taking care of orphans.
As I understand it is:
1. We are ordered to take care of orphans.
2. If we are unable to take care of orphans, marriage is permitted (as one aalim explained, to the widowed mother* of those orphans), or may be extended broadly to include, to any woman with the purpose of help in taking care of those orphans.
3. And if marriage is not possible, use the help of your servants/staff/slaves to take care of the orphans.
May Allah guide us all.
* Also see Holy Quran 4:127 They ask thy instruction concerning the women say: Allah doth instruct you about them: And (remember) what hath been rehearsed unto you in the Book, concerning the orphans of women to whom ye give not the portions prescribed, and yet whom ye desire to marry, as also concerning the children who are weak and oppressed: that ye stand firm for justice to orphans. There is not a good deed which ye do, but Allah is well-acquainted therewith.
Yet, the general understanding seems to be that even though polygamy is not recommended, it is not prohibited either. Nevertheless, they all agree that sex is only allowed within the bounds of marriage and a man must take full responsibility to provide for and care for his family.

Conditional polygamy permitted in Islam

Question: Why is polygamy allowed in Islam?

Answer: My understanding of the Quranic injunction is:
In Surah Nisaa, ayaat 2 & 3 read as follows(Abdullah Yusuf Ali translation)
"To orphans restore their property (When they reach their age), nor substitute (your) worthless things for (their) good ones; and devour not their substance (by mixing it up) with your own. For this is indeed a great sin.
If ye fear that ye shall not be able to deal justly with the orphans, Marry women of your choice, Two or three or four; but if ye fear that ye shall not be able to deal justly (with them), then only one, or (a captive) that your right hands possess, that will be more suitable, to prevent you from doing injustice. "
The point to be noted here is that the permission for marriage is for the purpose of taking care of orphans, not pleasure or …. !
As I understand it is:
1. We are ordered to take care of orphans.
2. If we are unable to take care of orphans, marriage is permitted (as one aalim explained, to the widowed mother* of those orphans), or may be extended broadly to include, to any woman with the purpose of help in taking care of those orphans.
3. And if marriage is not possible, use the help of your servants/staff/slaves to take care of the orphans.
May Allah guide us all.
* Also see Holy Quran 4:127 They ask thy instruction concerning the women say: Allah doth instruct you about them: And (remember) what hath been rehearsed unto you in the Book, concerning the orphans of women to whom ye give not the portions prescribed, and yet whom ye desire to marry, as also concerning the children who are weak and oppressed: that ye stand firm for justice to orphans. There is not a good deed which ye do, but Allah is well-acquainted therewith.